Radiculopathy?

LinXa1903

LinXa1903

PEB Forum Regular Member
Registered Member
Hello, all. After reading various posts about others with back/spine conditions, I am wondering about mine.

My diagnosis' for my back/spine are:

--Cervical Intervertebral Disk Syndrome w/degenerative arthritis changes and the most likley involved nerves are the Long Thoracic, Dorsal Scapular, Circumflex, Musculocutaneous, Subscapular, Median, Ulnar and Radial Nerves.
ROM:
Flexion 10
Extension 5
Right Lateral Flexion 10
Left Lateral Flexion 15
Right Rotation 20
Left Rotation 15

--Lumbar Intervertebral Disk Syndrome w/degenerative arthritis changes and the most likely involved nerves are the femoral and sciatic nerve

--Thoracolumbar Degenerative Disk Disease.
ROM:
Flexion 30
Extension 0
Right Lateral Flexion 20
Left Lateral Flexion 20
Right Rotation 15
Left Rotation 15

Do I need to have radiculopathy diagnosed specifically? I just assumed that that's what it meant when it said most likley involved nerves, etc......

Also, looking at the possible ratings, it looks like based on ROM, I should get the following:
40% for the Thoracolumbar spine (forward flexion of 30 degress or less)
AND
30% for the cervical spine (forward flexion of the cervical spine 15 degrees or less)

Please correct me if I am reading this wrong....

Thanks!
 
It can be rated seperately or together. You will most likley need EMG evidence for the MEB to refer you to the PEB for it however the VA will rate it based upon QTC results.
 
That you have received an Electromyography (EMG) which is a test that looks at the elctrical activity in muscles to determine if there is nerve damage.

The QTC test usually uses the "pin prick" method to check sensitivity along with reflexes and other objective factors. It all comes down to what medical evidence the physician who is dictating the NARSUM is looking for.
 
Thanks. The diagnosis' I listed above are already on my NARSUM. The ROMs listed are from my C&P exams. My packet is about to go up to the PEB. I was just wondering, after reading other posts, if radiculopathy needs to be a seperate diagnosis. My medical records attest to the radiculopathy down both arms and legs but it wasn't listed as a diagnosis on my NARSUM. I didn't say anything about it because I assumed that that what it was pertaining to when the conditions listed stated which nerves were involved.
 
If you want it to be separate than you should ask for an IMR before it goes up to the PEB.


It was left off of my DA3947 and I did an IMR to have it added and to request that is fails retention standards.

My appeal response was that they concurred to add the diagnosis with cervical radiculopaty and it would be combined with cervical ankylosis. The cervical ankylosis fails retention standards however they did not find the radiculopathy in itself failed, this is why it was combined.

If it is to late to request an IMR you will need to see what comes back from the VA DRAS and you could request that it be added in a "one time" VA reconsideration and or a formal PEB.
 
gsfowler said:
If you want it to be separate than you should ask for an IMR before it goes up to the PEB.


It was left off of my DA3947 and I did an IMR to have it added and to request that is fails retention standards.

My appeal response was that they concurred to add the diagnosis with cervical radiculopaty and it would be combined with cervical ankylosis. The cervical ankylosis fails retention standards however they did not find the radiculopathy in itself failed, this is why it was combined.

If it is to late to request an IMR you will need to see what comes back from the VA DRAS and you could request that it be added in a "one time" VA reconsideration and or a formal PEB.
Click to expand...

If I can ask, what eCFR code are you using for cervical radiculopaty / cervical ankylosis?
 
Can anyone tell me what this EMG result means?? :
- The periphearal nerve conduction test of the upper and lower extremities is normal.
- EMG result shows findings suggestive of neuropathic changes indicative of active partial denervation process afflicting left>right tricep and deltoid muscles, which are innervated by C6 C7 C8 and C5 C6 roots, respectively.

Is this normal or not? Thanks
 
phase one of the test showed normal, phase two ( the painful part) showed mild changes in your biceps and linked it back to your cervical discs. or to put it in VASRD terms
incomplete paraylsis of the (muscle group number goes here) with mild changes. depending on your documented symptoms etc it could be considered slight or mild ( 0 or 10%)

Just an uneducated guess your actual mileage may vary.
 
TSgt Twitch said:
phase one of the test showed normal, phase two ( the painful part) showed mild changes in your biceps and linked it back to your cervical discs. or to put it in VASRD terms
incomplete paraylsis of the (muscle group number goes here) with mild changes. depending on your documented symptoms etc it could be considered slight or mild ( 0 or 10%)

Just an uneducated guess your actual mileage may vary.
Click to expand...

Thanks for the input Twitch. Too many guesses of which code that would be. I will have to wait and ask the vet rep. Because I am OS, my consult is all over the phone, so I am trying to gather as much info as possible to help myself.
 
With radiculopathy, per most of the boards of appeals cases I have looked at, it comes down to the NERVE affected, and what synptons caused. Like the It band or PSOAS band in my case even at incompelte paraylisis could cause foot drop, but complete paraylisis means perma foot drop. In the case of a bicep/cervical nerves it could be anything from headaches (occipital nerve) to reduced sensation in fingers or medial nerve etc. or for complete paraylisis could be loss of motor function to individual digits.

Typically, reduced sensation, with no manifestation of physical residuals gets rated at the mild and at the most per VASRD= incomplete paraylisis moderately severe. Additionally, if the nerve damage only effects a joint that is being rated for disability, then you will only get rated for the higher of the two, in cases like these both codes are listed on the rating "appearing combined" I.E shoulder with a slap tear rated at 20% with radiating nerve pain that would otherwise be rated at 10% will have both codes listed and then the highest percentage awardable. exlusions of this include any symptons such as bowel/bladder impairment or sexual disfunction.

Trying to explain in better terms, it may not be 100% accurate, but I try.
 
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