After 100+ jumps and 15+ years of Active Duty, I had an ankle surgery that went bad (medical malpractice if not for the Ferris Doctrine).
This may be long, but I hope it helps. I am not sure how the actual breakdown was computated (i.e. atrophy, ROM, RSD, etc), but here is what was listed all together as 30%:
"Soldier developed severe, postoperative pain that was consistent with RSD and CRPS. He underwent local injections as well as lumbar sympatheic blocks without relief. He describes constant dysesthesis and sharp pain with movement of his left ankle. Neurology consultant noted color changes in the foot and extreme sensitivity to palpation. While performing the NCS, the Soldier had extreme pain in his ankle and intolerable pain in his EHL stimulation that limited the study. There is visible atrophy in the left calf, hyperalgesia, ruborous skin color with swelling. Radiographs showed mild degenerative changes. Range of motion (ROM) (limited by pain) of the left ankle showed a dorsiflexion of 15 degrees, and plantar flexion of 20 degrees. Soldier manages the pain with opioid medications. Soldier is unable to perform APFT, etc, etc, etc...."
Here is what is listed for the 10%:
"Low back pain. Soldier developed daily low back pain without inciting event. There is no radiculopathy. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness along the paraspinous musculature. Lower extremity strength is equal and symmetrical. There is mild straightening of the lubar lordosis. MRI showed a mild discongenic disease spondylosis, posterior disc bulge at L2-3 and L4-5. There was a central NHP at L2-3. There is a moderate amount of facet osteoarthropathy at L4-5 and L5-S1. ROM showed a forward flexion of 80 degrees. Soldier is unable to perform the APFT, etc, etc, etc..."
Again, that is directly from the DA 199, so I don't know how they determined the specifics....hope it helps.
-hoops